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* 1. Is it typical in exegesis for one Greek or Hebrew word in a sentence to have as many as four to five relevant meanings?
What examples other than Romans 1:26-27 can be cited?

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* 2. If a word is used twice in a sentence, once with the "un" prefix and once without, do those two words of necessity carry opposite meanings?

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* 3. If, per Dr. Brownson, "unnatural" in verseĀ 26 means "excessive" is the following a good translation of that verse?

For their women exchanged relations that are deficient for those that are excessive . . .

(In this regard reference the antonyms of "excessive.")

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* 4. Does "unnatural" for females in verse 26 mean "non-procreative heterosexual acts"?

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* 5. The web page associated with these questions states that, "The only opposite of that [heterosexual non-procreative acts] would be procreative same-sex acts." Now, verse 26b reads, "For their women exchanged natural relations for those that are contrary to nature . . ." If "natural" here means "procreative" then could it not be argued that the opposite of "natural" or procreative would be "non-procreative"? I.e. the meaning of "unnatural" would be "non-procreative." This way verse 26b would read, "For their women exchanged procreative relations for those that are non-procreative." After all, verse 26 in the original does not explicitly contain a word for "heterosexual." Wouldn't this prove the above quote from the web page to be wrong?

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* 6. If the above is correct, then verse 27 would contain the same meanings of natural and unnatural (vis-a-vis. Berkhof). However, what is then wrong (unnatural) in verse 27 is that the men engaged in non-procreative intercourse. Wouldn't that definition or interpretation then prohibit all same-sex erotic activity because it is always and inherently non-procreative?

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* 7. Are these emails helpful in understanding Dr. Brownson's book?

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