Ankle Review Part 2 Question Title * 1. One of the following statements about navicular fracture is False: Presented as poorly localized pain in the midfoot. Ankle inversion may cause avulsion fracture. Delayed union is more common in avulsion fracture than stress fracture. NWB immobilization for 6-8 weeks is the primary treatment. OK Question Title * 2. One of the following statements about spring ligament tear is True: Commonly caused by direct injury. Tenderness on lateral plantar foot. It is tear in the medial calcaneonavicular ligament. Treatment is surgical. OK Question Title * 3. One of the following statements about tibialis posterior tendinopathy is True: Acute onset. More common in females. Tenderness on lateral malleolus. All of the above. OK Question Title * 4. One of the following statements about peroneal tendinopathy is True: Follows ankle inversion injury. Patient presented with pain, swelling and crepitus. Management is mainly conservative. All of the above. OK Question Title * 5. One of the following statements about base of 5th metatarsal fracture is True: Avulsion of tuberosity treated by short period of immobilization. Jones’ fracture carries high risk of non-union. Jones’ fracture is a common stress fracture. All of the above. OK DONE